I was listening to radio five live on the way to work this morning and heard Harriet Harman defending the recent decision to not allow a Christian couple to foster due to their views on homosexuality.
I am not making any particular comment on that case here, but my ears pricked up when I heard the esteemed politician declare
"In this country the law overules the scriptures", or words to that effect.
My reply is fairly simple.
"No it doesn't."
The end.
2 comments:
The issue there though is 'Whose scriptures?'
Also is any interpretation of scripture valid as an excuse for breaking the law, no matter how screwey?
1) Any, got to be PC!
2) Do you break "the law" or do you break an interpretation of the law which is constantly changing?
Post a Comment